I may be wrong, but I think we have another “duh” moment.
According to “Brain MRI may lead to early autism detection,”
reported by Nicole Ostrow of Bloomberg News, researchers
studying 60 children, half diagnosed with mild autism and half
without autism, were able to identify autism 94% of the time
using magnetic resonance imaging. Specifically, the MRI looked
at water diffusion along the brain’s nerve fibers.
The article talks of “the disorder’s biological base,” and
objective markers, and early detection.
While there is no doubt that early diagnosis and more
objectivity are worthy goals, I have to wonder, if autism is a
neurological disorder, and even subjectively, differences in
behavior, intellect and communication are readily apparent,
isn’t it a given that brain processing will be different? Isn’t
this just objective confirmation of what we already know? (and
why only 94% success?)
Also, this test does nothing to shed light on the
cause of autism. When the article discusses “the
disorder’s biological base,” is it suggesting that the
differences found in the autistic brain are innate, and thus,
the cause of the disorder? Or, is it merely finding changes in
the brain caused by some external, environmental insult (which,
combined with a genetic disposition of susceptibility to such
harm, is what we believe to be the true cause of the disorder)?
If it’s the latter, are these differences in brain processing
really a “biological base”?
And, another thought, this one regarding ADHD. We’ve always
maintained that disorders like ADHD are part of the ASD spectrum
(and there are researchers out there who apparently believe
likewise). That is, that whatever is causing the ASD epidemic
also is causing the ADHD epidemic. It’s just a different degree
of effect and a different manifestation. I’ll bet if the same
MRI studies were done on kids diagnosed with ADHD, the
researchers would find that the ADHD brains also process
information differently.
If that’s the case, then you have to wonder. We were always told
by Robert’s doctors that ADHD was caused by a brain chemistry
imbalance with respect to certain neurotransmitters, and that
drugs were the only way to address his issues.
If the ADHD brain, like the autistic brain, processes
information differently, is that really the result of a
“neurotransmitter imbalance?” And, more to the point, how can
messing with those neurotransmitters, as the ADHD meds are
theorized to do, really fix the problem?
Just a thought.